RedPillAger wrote:It depends what you mean by exploit. if it means that both parties in a deal are doing so consensually, there's no problem. if it means someone initiated force, there is a problem. i have no right nor authority to initiate force against another, and expect the same courtesy in return.
I think you know what is meant by the term "exploit". You exploit someone when you take advantage of their situation, consent or no consent, the result is the same; if a man's only choice, if he means to survive, is to consent to have the product of his labour stolen from him, then he
will consent.
The trouble with you lot is that you lack an appreciation of historical context. If a man's father was deprived of his wealth, then he shall, through no fault of his own, have a worse position from which to bargain. Going back further, if we traced the number of hands each acre of land in England has passed through, we would, always and without fail, find that it was, at some point, acquired by force. We live with the consequences of the actions of men who cannot be prosecuted, either by common law, or some arbitrary right-libertarian philosophical litmus-test.
Are the owners of property, stolen some hundreds of years ago by whatever mad man with a big enough army, exempted from your laws against the initiation of force?
Men are
made unequal by the ordinary functioning of the economy, but you believe it's perfectly reasonable to assume that all is well so long as consent is involved.
So, when a drug-addicted and homeless prostitute performs some gross and humiliating sex act in return for a pittance, you take her customer's side in the resulting moral controversy between him and the police.
If it's all voluntary, there is no problem. however, your mention of "socialist countries" implies a non-consensual state. you'd need to clarify if the government of that state has any authority to initiate force against a non-participant. if they do not, there is no problem. if that's the case, I'd love to hear an example. I wasn't aware that one such ever existed.
I think you'll find that it's a seller's market. There's only so much room on this planet and, therefore, only so many state-actors, I think you'll find all of them very-well inclined to "initiate force". Do you consider it, some how, less legitimate for a socialist state to "initiate force" for a capitalist state to the do the same?