But when the USSR invaded eastern Poland about two weeks after this, why was the same condition not met with the same result?
USSR did not invade eastern Poland. The Polish state had collapsed upon the German approach of Warsaw. The USSR then marched to eastern Ukraine and Byelorussia in order to protect their eastern Ukrainian and Byelorussian blood brothers from destruction by Germans as well as oppressive Polish militarists.
When some level of collusion between the USSR and Germany became apparent in the Friendship pact within two weeks after that, why was some secondary condition not tripped?
There was never an alliance between USSR and Germany. The only agreements signed between USSR and Germany that could be considered friendly were signed with Weimar Germany in the 1920s.
American Anna Louise Strong clarifies this in "The Soviets Expected It":
"Both Adolf Hitler and Joachim von Ribbentrop say that Germany and not the Soviet Union originally asked for the pact; since the admission hardly adds to their prestige, one may assume that it is true."
"The nonaggression pact was not an alliance. The USSR did not sign with Hitler the type of mutual assistance pact she had offered to Britain and France. She signed a pact practically similar in form to the various nonaggression pacts she had been signing for fifteen years. It was not even mutually exclusive. It did not preclude the signing of similar pacts with Britain and France. Without violating the pact, the Soviet Union was free to oppose, even by armed force, a German attack on Turkey or Yugoslavia. She had agreed not to take part part in aggression against Germany, but had promised nothing about resisting an aggression the Nazis might start. We shall see that the Soviet Union actually did resist such aggressions without violating the pact...The USSR never became the "arsenal" for Germany in anything like the sense in which America, while still technically neutral, became the arsenal for Great Britain. America has even been the arsenal for Japan in her war against China to a far greater extent than the USSR ever was for Germany that could be classed as a war commodity was oil; the highest foreign guesses assume that the Soviets may possibly have sent as much as a million tons. America's supply of oil to Japan even under the government licensing system was more than three times as much."
Additionally, the USSR signed a non-aggression pact with France on 29 November 1932. This is self-explanotory.
The USSR signed a treaty of neutrality with Weimar Germany on 24 April 1926. It provided the following:
Article 1:
The German Government and the Government of the Union of Socialist Soviet Republics will maintain friendly contact in order to promote an understanding with regard to all political and economic questions jointly affecting their two countries.
Article 2:
Should one of the Contracting Parties, despite its peaceful attitude, be attacked by one or more third Powers, the other Contracting Party shall observe neutrality for the whole of the duration of the conflict.
I feel that the non-aggression pact signed between USSR and Germany in 1939 was genius. It had to have been the greatest diplomatic manuever of Comrade Stalin's career. It allowed the USSR to take back territory unjustly pilfered by the Polish. Our defense was significantly strengthened which was vital in the victory over fascism. Personally, I would have wanted for USSR and Germany to collaborate in wiping out the western imperialists. With the western imperialists defeated, the USSR could have then turned its attention to Germany and brought about the international socialist revolution.